Thank you for your clarification. Still, I have to ask this: if we decide to reject word-for-word meanings and we decide to stick to historical context, is it fair to start doing it as well when we talk about for example inquisition, crusader wars, Old Testament and other things from history?
Who has the authority to clarify hadiths and Quran and what's the source of that person(s) authority? What if Islamic schoolars disagree about something (Aisha's age is one of the examples), how to decide who has right and who doesn't? If somebody's explanations differ from Quran and hadiths, which one should be taken as relevant and which one should be ignored according to Islam - Quran and hadiths or schoolars' explanations? Which one hold the primate in Islam?
The premise says when judging Muhammad's behaviour we have to take into account historical context because he has lived 1400 years before us. Fine. If we think a bit we get a conclusion that if those crimes (according to nowadays standards) were accepted 1400 years ago, then they should be even more accepted for example 2000 years ago since society was more backward 2000 years ago than it was 1400 years ago. That leads us to the next question: was Jesus a pedophile, warlord, misogynist, rapist, slave owner and mass serial killer?
To make a further clarification I must add that "historical context" is not the only criteria for exegeting. When deciphering the meaning of a verse, one first looks at other similar verses in the Quran. Parts of the Quran explain other parts, forming a cohesive whole. In this very example we may have a closer look on Al-BAQARAH 2:190: "Fight in the way of Allah against those who fight against you, but begin not hostilities. Lo! Allah loveth not aggressors." This one is a universal order, not a case specific order. Easy to see it allows a "defensive licence" only. Knowing the events and the social and historical conditions under which the verses were revealed enables one to correctly grasp the purpose of the ruling. Instead of deriving a ruling by isolating a single verse, it is necessary to take into account the Quran's overarching themes (justice, morality, and the oneness of God). Let me give an example from Old Testament. Samuel 15:3: "Now go and attack Amalek, and utterly destroy all that they have, and do not spare them. But kill both man and woman, infant and nursing child, ox and sheep, camel and donkey.” If we disregard contemporary events and the social and historical conditions, and take it as word-for-word meanings, then we are badly misleaded.
Who has the authority to clarify hadiths and Quran and what's the source of that person(s) authority? Good question. The generally accepted rule in Islamic philosophy - yes there is a credit for philosophy in Islam - is this: Clear (unadulterated/sound) reason and authentic (correct) transmitted knowledge (revelation) never contradict each other. If we perceive a contradiction, there could be two reasons for this: 1- Our reasoning is flawed, or we lack information. 2- We may be misinterpreting the religious text (missing its metaphorical or contextual meaning). Logic is not an arbiter over religion; it is the most fundamental key and tool for understanding, interpreting, and living religion. Dozens of verses in the Quran contain expressions such as "Will you not then use your reason?" (*E-fela ta'kılun*), "Do you not reflect?" (*E-fela tetefekkerun*), or "Take heed, O people of insight!" As an example, regarding to the matter of Aisha's age, I will use a combination of logic and historical facts. We know that before becoming betrothed to the Mohammad, Aisha was betrothed to Jubayr, the son of Mut'im ibn Adi. When Mut‘im’s family decided against the marriage of his son to the daughter of Abu Bakr—whose family had become Muslim—Abu Bakr gave his daughter in marriage to the Mohammad. If Aisha was six years old when he married Mohammad, she must have been born four years after the beginning of his prophethood. Simple maths talk in this very place. How is it possible, under these circumstances, for Abu Bakr—who had embraced Islam in the very early days—to have agreed to give his daughter in marriage to a family of idolaters? It appears that, well before Abu Bakr embraced Islam, a proposal for Aisha’s hand was made by a polytheistic family, and her father accepted it. Had this proposal occurred after Abu Bakr had accepted Islam, Abu Bakr—being a companion of Mohammad—would never have considered giving his daughter to a polytheistic family. In that case, Aisha was born before the advent of Islam and had even reached the age where a family might seek her hand in marriage. It must be acknowledged that Aisha was born at least five or six years prior to the emergence of Islam. Consequently, she would have been at least 14 or 15 years old at the time the Mohammad sought her hand. Arab society also has its own distinctive forms of marriage, traditions, customs, and social norms. Just as it is inappropriate for someone examining historical events to act like a judge, it is also inappropriate for them to adopt a defensive approach. It is a fact that this marriage took place at an early age. However, this age is not at odds with the marriage culture of that society.
If the age at which Aisha married been contrary to the customs, traditions, and social norms of Arab society, the Mohammad would have faced severe criticism—particularly in Medina—from his staunchest enemies, including the Jews and the Hypocrites. Indeed, events such as the Mohammad’s marriage to Zaynab, the change of the *qibla* (direction of prayer), and the shedding of blood during the sacred months in the Nakhla Expedition—led by Abdullah ibn Jahsh—provoked harsh criticism of the Mohammad and his companions by the Meccan polytheists and the Jews. Mohammad and the Muslims, whose every move and action was closely monitored by their adversaries, faced criticism whenever they acted in a manner contrary to the prevailing social norms. From this, one can conclude that Aisha’s age at marriage was a practice accepted by that society.
To accurately understand past events—to the extent that conditions and sources permit—and to arrive at the truth, one must not evaluate the past using the value judgments and standards of the present.
Whether Jesus, Muhammad, or Moses, they are spiritual and social revolutionaries who emerged in a harsh region like the Middle East and succeeded in transforming their societies in a positive sense. If the superstitions propagated by their successors are clouding our minds today, it is solely because we have stopped using our reason. That's my reflection on the matter. Please accept my apologies for the dreadfully long text.
"Exodus 20:13 "Thou shalt not kill"
Well did Jesus mean that one shall not kill anything be it Human or animal, or did it refer to the order to not murder fellow Humans.
Most modern Bibles view this as 'thou shall not murder', but who are they to decide?"
Linguists maybe. The original Hebrew word used is ratsaḥ which specifically means unauthorized, premeditated, or intentional killing (murder). The commandment establishes the sanctity of human life. If you know holistic message in Testaments, then you can easily detect the meaning.